Request: Gaps (frequency) tracker

Started by Patrik, Sep 11, 2022, 01:02 PM

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Patrik


I have a question ...

Let's say I have a strategy, not for betting but for tracking.
Let's say I want to know the frequency one single number repeats after one hit.

Example nr 19
The number hits and we count how many trails it takes for number 19 to hit again.
Then we get a list with gaps (frequency) 20, 40, 14, 3, 35, 25, 58,

Now can I describe the method and get a module tracking the frequency and get an output file with the gaps of the frequency hits?

This way I can get the RIBOT to become a analyze bot with my own customize modules.

One more question, is the RIBOT click by each spin or can we load a spin file and get the process automated?

Cheers Patrik

VLS

Quote from: Patrik on Sep 11, 2022, 01:02 PMNow can I describe the method and get a module tracking the frequency and get an output file with the gaps of the frequency hits?

Hello dear Patrik, this explanation is enough.

A new gaps/frequency tracker module is on the way 👍

Quote from: Patrik on Sep 11, 2022, 01:02 PMOne more question, is the RIBOT click by each spin or can we load a spin file and get the process automated?

Both options are available:

- Manual input.
- File input.

Here is an usage video with automated file input:



-- Victor

Patrik


Wow looks great, thanks for your effort, now I know you can do anything with your software.
Good to know in the future if I find a way worth coding.

Cheers

VLS

Hello dear @Patrik,

There should be an option to discard the first spins in the session, correct?

(To make the first gap value accurate, given the first/initial show may not reflect the correct previous gap. I.e. a long sleeper may come up at 10th spin, but it has a much longer previous gap. This way it counts strict gaps only)


-- Victor

VLS

Quote from: VLS on Nov 10, 2022, 02:47 AMThere should be an option to discard the first spins in the session, correct?

Yep. Coming as a configurable option 👍

Even if first spins may not be an accurate measure of the previous gap, it's still a gap that some fellows may want to track/use :D


-- Victor

Patrik

Here is one example... The binomial probability is 25 attempts for one single number to show with 50% probability... There is as many singles as there is series ... So when I get my number to show it is a trigger to get a serie or a hit for the next 25 attempts... If not I have a single ... So I track hits and see if they become series ... If not you need to track 25 event windows after each other and we can start from spin one

Patrik

I assumed understanding question correctly

Median Joe

Quote from: Patrik on Nov 23, 2022, 08:03 PMHere is one example... The binomial probability is 25 attempts for one single number to show with 50% probability...

Just to be clear, this means at least one pre-selected number, not exactly one. If it's exactly one the probability is only 35%.


Median Joe

Quote from: Patrik on Sep 11, 2022, 01:02 PMLet's say I want to know the frequency one single number repeats after one hit.

Example nr 19
The number hits and we count how many trails it takes for number 19 to hit again.

On average it will take 37 trials. The fact that it just hit won't make any difference.

Patrik

Not sure you look at correct column.
Jules... Bayes calculated this...

Ec has one attempt
Dozen has two attempts
Line has four attempts
Corner has 6
Street has 8
Split has 12
Single has 25

Median Joe

Patrik, yes it's the correct column : P(X >= 1) means greater than or equal to 1. The same applies to the other locations you listed.

Patrik


Median Joe can you calculate the AROUND 50% likelihood for one single number?

Many Thanks




Median Joe

Not sure what you mean? Do you mean the number of trials needed to get exactly one hit of a number such that the probability is 50%.

If so, you can't get it. The maximum probability is about 37% for exactly one hit and it occurs in a 37 spin cycle. That might seem confusing, but the probability is always higher for a range of values rather than just one.

But the "at least one" probability is fine. I only mentioned it because I thought some might have thought you were referring to exactly one hit.

Patrik


I talk about the binomial probability that is less than 37 spin cycle to get one number to hit with 50% likelihood

If not then the whole list I posted should be wrong and is not.
Jules or Bayes was a math expert

HardMan

24 or 25 spins shall give you 50% one hit probability for a single SU number.