Expected Returns

Started by FreeRoulette, Apr 21, 2023, 09:38 PM

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FreeRoulette

Any math people? Please let me know if this is correct.

I want to see the expected returns if I bet $8 per number on 12 numbers for 15 spins.

Expected return = (26/38) x $0 + (12/38) x $288 + (-12/38) x $8 x 15


FreeRoulette

I was not able to edit, but on B, it is $8 per bet not $12.

VLS

Quote from: FreeRoulette on Apr 21, 2023, 09:39 PMI was not able to edit ...

Please feel free to make a reply with all the edits you need to make it a correct post and I'll copy/paste it as the first message.

(Then I'll delete these ones of course)
Email/Paypal: betselection@gmail.com

-- Victor

FreeRoulette

This is how I understand expected returns to work. Please correct me if I am wrong.

This is calculated on a 38 number roulette wheel.

__________________________________________________________________________________
Expected Return

The expected return tells us the average amount of money a player can expect to win
or lose per bet over a long period of time.

Example:

Bet $8 on 12 straight numbers for 15 spins.

Expected return = (12/38) x $288 + (-26/38) x $96 x 15

Breaking the above formula down into sections

A: (12/38) x $288
B: (-12/38) x $96
C: 15

How to use the formula

A: The probability of winning
   Probability: We bet on 12 numbers out of 38 numbers (12/38)
   Amount on win: $8 bet x 35 payout = $280 + $8 (because we get the winning bet back) = $288

B: The probability of losing
   Probability: We did not bet on 26 out of 38 numbers (-26/38)
   Amount on loss: $8 per bet x 12 numbers that we bet on = $96

C: Spins
   The calculation to this point is the average win/loss per spin.
   So if we want know how much won/loss over 15 spins, we multiply by 15.

_____________________________________________________________________________________
Probability of winning over X amount of spins

Example:
What is the probability of winning if I bet 2 numbers for 4 spins?

1 - (1 - 2/38)^4 = 0.1884 = 18.84%


We bet 2 numbers so the probability to win this spin is 2/38.

Because the win plus loss always equals 1.
We take the win away from the 1 to get the loss.
The probability that we lose is (1-2/38).

We lose that for 4 spins, so (1-2/38)^4.

Now we take that loss away from 1 to get the win.

1 - (1 - 2/38)^4 = 0.1884

Then we multiply it by 100 to change it from decimal to percent.

0.1884 x 100 = 18.84% chance to hit over 4 spins.

_____________________________________________________________________________________
Probability of winning over X amount of spins continued

We bet for a total of 10 spins

In the above example, we bet 2 numbers for 4 spins
1 - (1 - 2/38)^4 = 0.1884

Now we want to bet 3 numbers for an additional 6 spins
1 - (1 - 3/38)^6 = 0.2924

We multiply the two probabilities together to get a 5.51% chance of hitting at least once in the entire 10 spins.
0.1884 x 0.2924 = 0.0551 or 5.51%


Smith

Quote from: FreeRoulette on Apr 22, 2023, 04:09 AMThis is how I understand expected returns to work. Please correct me if I am wrong.


Hi FreeRoulette,

I'm here to correct you.  O:-)


QuoteThe expected return tells us the average amount of money a player can expect to win
or lose per bet over a long period of time.


That's right, so I was a little puzzled why in your first calculation you had multiplied by 15 (a number of spins). This doesn't really make sense because the expectation is an average over a (theoretically)  infinite number of spins, not 15 spins. If you multiply the basic expectation formula by a number of spins or trials as you did, you will get the wrong answer. You just need to find probability of a win × profit and add this to the probability of a loss × loss. That gives you expectation, job done!


QuoteExample:

Bet $8 on 12 straight numbers for 15 spins.

Expected return = (12/38) x $288 + (-26/38) x $96 x 15


Your mistake here is to forget about the 11 losing numbers; only one number can win! The probabilities are ok.

When you win, your profit is $8 × 35 = $280 minus the $8 on each of the 11 losing numbers which amounts to $88. Therefore the profit on a win is $280 ─ $88 = $192. Your numbers for the expected loss are correct.

So the expectation is 12/38 × $192 + 26/38 × (─$96) = ─$96/19. If you divide by the total staked ($96) you get ─$1/19 or ─$0.0526, about 5 cents lost for every dollar bet. This is the standard result for the double zero wheel so it serves as a check on the calculation.

Glancing over your remaining calculations I see you've made further errors, but I don't have time right now to correct them. I'll be back later.

Sorry! not trying to make you look bad, but you did ask...



Smith

...continued

Your second calculation is ok, although I get a slightly higher value.

1 ─ (1 ─ 2/38)4 = 0.1945

In the first part of your third calculation of 3 numbers for 6 spins I also get a higher value.

1 ─ (1 ─ 3/38)6 = 0.3893


QuoteWe multiply the two probabilities together to get a 5.51% chance of hitting at least once in the entire 10 spins.
0.1884 x 0.2924 = 0.0551 or 5.51%


This can't be correct, because it's a smaller value than what you calculated for betting on just 2 numbers over 4 spins. If you're betting 3 numbers for an additional 6 spins the probability of at least one win over the 10 spins must be considerably higher than the probability of a win just betting the 2 numbers for 4 spins. What you have calculated here is the probability of getting at least one hit in the first 4 spins (2 numbers) and at least one hit in the remaining 6 spins (3 numbers).

This is asking much more of the wheel that at least one hit over 10 spins, and hence the probability is smaller (0.1945 × 0.3893 = 0.0757 or 7.57%).

To get the probability of at least one win over the 10 spins you add the separate probabilities, using the rule that P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B) for mutually exclusive events. P(A or B) means at least one of the events A and B occurs.

0.1945 + 0.3893 = 0.5838, or about 58%.

Smith

Hey FreeRoulette,

Now it's my turn to make a mistake.  :'(

I thought that the final probability of ~58% was a little too high, then I realized that the events are not mutually exclusive because you may get a win in both events.

In that case you have to use the formula P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B)  ─  P(A)×P(B).

ie, P(a win in the 2 spins or a win in the 3 spin) = 0.1945 + 0.3893 ─ 0.0757 = 0.5081, or about 51%.

I confirmed this from a simulation. It's always best to double check a probability calculation by another means if possible. Probability can be tricky!

FreeRoulette

Hello Smith,

Thank you for looking over the calculations and for the corrections. I really needed to get those formulas correct because it is too easy, once the program is coded, to accept the answers as good.